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Old 01-05-2005, 03:49 PM   #1 (permalink)
Rev
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Would one naturally be able to conventional squat more than one full squats? If so why because you are using greater muscular activation, more glute and ham use? I'm sure there is a simple obvious answer and/or reason to this but sadly I don't scientifically know why.
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Old 01-05-2005, 03:58 PM   #2 (permalink)
nobody
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What is a conventional squat?
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Old 01-05-2005, 04:00 PM   #3 (permalink)
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I considered it when you just go to parallel....? Do I have the vocab wrong?
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Old 01-05-2005, 04:16 PM   #4 (permalink)
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Two things come to mind:
- It's also easier to do a half-curl, rather than a full-range curl.
- Most of us don't have the posterior strength and/or flexibility to get down that far and come back up. Going just to parallel takes away that challenge.
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Old 01-05-2005, 04:33 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Thanks Rock. It all goes back to posterior chain...there's no escape. I have the flexibility I guess it's a matter of plugging away at my gm's, glute/ham raises, walking lunges, etc etc. All which I knew I was weak on and started working on very recently, guess I was just looking for scientific reasoning.

A Full Squat (Olympic Squat) requires more posterior chain activation and strength than a squat going to parallel. Therefor a full squat will be more challenging and demanding thus making it harder than a squat to parallel.
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